2026 Updated CompTIA CAS-004 Certification Study Guide Pass CAS-004 Fast
CAS-004 Dumps PDF 2026 Program Your Preparation EXAM SUCCESS
NEW QUESTION # 261
A software house is developing a new application. The application has the following requirements:
Reduce the number of credential requests as much as possible
Integrate with social networks
Authenticate users
Which of the following is the BEST federation method to use for the application?
- A. OpenID
- B. OAuth
- C. WS-Federation
- D. SAML
Answer: D
Explanation:
SAML and OAuth2 are open standard protocols designed with different, but related goals.
Primarily, SAML 2.0 is designed to authenticate a user, so providing user identity data to a service. OAuth 2.0 is designed as an authorization protocol permitting a user to share access to specific resources with a service provider.
NEW QUESTION # 262
An analyst is working to address a potential compromise of a corporate endpoint and discovers the attacker accessed a user's credentials. However, it is unclear if the system baseline was modified to achieve persistence. Which of the following would most likely support forensic activities in this scenario?
- A. SCAP scanner
- B. Bit-level disk duplication
- C. Software composition analysis
- D. Side-channel analysis
Answer: B
Explanation:
Bit-level disk duplication creates an exact copy of the storage device, preserving the system's state for in-depth forensic analysis. This helps identify any unauthorized changes to the baseline or other artifacts of compromise. This aligns with CASP+ objective 5.2, which emphasizes conducting forensic activities and ensuring evidence integrity during investigations.
NEW QUESTION # 263
A security analyst discovered that the company's WAF was not properly configured. The main web server was breached, and the following payload was found in one of the malicious requests:
Which of the following would BEST mitigate this vulnerability?
- A. Data encoding
- B. CAPTCHA
- C. Input validation
- D. Network intrusion prevention
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 264
A penetration tester inputs the following command:
This command will allow the penetration tester to establish a:
- A. reverse shell
- B. network pivot
- C. proxy chain
- D. port mirror
Answer: A
Explanation:
The command depicted is indicative of a reverse shell, which is a type of shell where the target system initiates an outgoing connection to a remote host, and then standard input and output of the command line interface on the target system is redirected through this connection to the remote host. This is typically used by an attacker after exploitation to open a remote command line interface to control the compromised machine.
NEW QUESTION # 265
Law enforcement officials informed an organization that an investigation has begun. Which of the following is the FIRST step the organization should take?
- A. Perform e-discovery.
- B. Refer to the retention policy.
- C. Initiate a legal hold.
- D. Review the subpoena.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A legal hold is a process by which an organization instructs its employees or other relevant parties to preserve specific data for potential litigation. A legal hold is triggered when litigation is reasonably anticipated, such as when law enforcement officials inform an organization that an investigation has begun. The first step the organization should take is to initiate a legal hold to ensure that relevant evidence is not deleted, destroyed, or altered. A legal hold also demonstrates the organization's good faith and compliance with its duty to preserve evidence.
NEW QUESTION # 266
A pharmaceutical company was recently compromised by ransomware. Given the following EDR output from the process investigation:
On which of the following devices and processes did the ransomware originate?
- A. cpt-ws018, powershell.exe
- B. cpt-ws026, NO-AV.exe
- C. cpt-ws002, DearCry.exe
- D. cpt-ws026, DearCry.exe
- E. cpt-ws002, NO-AV.exe
Answer: B
Explanation:
The EDR output shows the process tree of the ransomware infection. The root node is NO-AV.exe, which is a malicious executable that disables antivirus software and downloads the DearCry ransomware. The NO-AV.
exe process was launched on cpt-ws026 by a user named John. The DearCry.exe process was then launched on cpt-ws026 by NO-AV.exe and propagated to other devices via SMB. Therefore, the ransomware originated from cpt-ws026 and NO-AV.exe. Verified References:
https://www.microsoft.com/security/blog/2021/03/12/analyzing-dearcry-ransomware-the-first-attack-to-exploit-exchange-server-vulnerabilities/
https://www.crowdstrike.com/blog/dearcry-ransomware-analysis/
NEW QUESTION # 267
An auditor Is reviewing the logs from a web application to determine the source of an Incident. The web application architecture Includes an Internet-accessible application load balancer, a number of web servers In a private subnet, application servers, and one database server In a tiered configuration. The application load balancer cannot store the logs. The following are sample log snippets:
Which of the following should the auditor recommend to ensure future incidents can be traced back to the sources?
- A. Install a software-based HIDS on the application servers.
- B. Enable the x-Forwarded-For header al the load balancer.
- C. Install a certificate signed by a trusted CA.
- D. Store the value of the $_server ( ' REMOTE_ADDR ' ] received by the web servers.
- E. Use stored procedures on the database server.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 268
A security architect is designing a solution for a new customer who requires significant security capabilities in its environment. The customer has provided the architect with the following set of requirements:
* Capable of early detection of advanced persistent threats.
* Must be transparent to users and cause no performance degradation.
+ Allow integration with production and development networks seamlessly.
+ Enable the security team to hunt and investigate live exploitation techniques.
Which of the following technologies BEST meets the customer's requirements for security capabilities?
- A. Deception software
- B. Threat Intelligence
- C. Centralized logging
- D. Sandbox detonation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Deception software is a technology that creates realistic but fake assets (such as servers, applications, data, etc.) that mimic the real environment and lure attackers into interacting with them. By doing so, deception software can help detect advancedpersistent threats (APTs) that may otherwise evade traditional security tools
12. Deception software can also provide valuable insights into the attacker's tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) by capturing their actions and behaviors on the decoys13.
Deception software can meet the customer's requirements for security capabilities because:
* It is capable of early detection of APTs by creating attractive targets for them and alerting security teams when they are engaged12.
* It is transparent to users and causes no performance degradation because it does not interfere with legitimate traffic or resources13.
* It allows integration with production and development networks seamlessly because it can create decoys that match the network topology and configuration13.
* It enables the security team to hunt and investigate live exploitation techniques because it can record and analyze the attacker's activities on the decoys13.
NEW QUESTION # 269
An organization is deploying a new, online digital bank and needs to ensure availability and performance. The cloud-based architecture is deployed using PaaS and SaaS solutions, and it was designed with the following considerations:
- Protection from DoS attacks against its infrastructure and web applications is in place.
- Highly available and distributed DNS is implemented.
- Static content is cached in the CDN.
- A WAF is deployed inline and is in block mode.
- Multiple public clouds are utilized in an active-passive architecture.
With the above controls in place, the bank is experiencing a slowdown on the unauthenticated payments page. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
- A. The public cloud provider is applying QoS to the inbound customer traffic.
- B. The API gateway endpoints are being directly targeted.
- C. The site is experiencing a brute-force credential attack.
- D. A DDoS attack is targeted at the CDN.
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 270
A security analyst is assessing a new application written in Java. The security analyst must determine which vulnerabilities exist during runtime. Which of the following would provide the most exhaustive list of vulnerabilities while meeting the objective?
- A. Dynamic analysis
- B. Input validation
- C. Fuzz testing
- D. Side-channel analysis
- E. Static analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Dynamic analysis involves testing the application while it is running to identify vulnerabilities present during execution, providing the most exhaustive runtime vulnerability detection. Input validation is a specific security control, not a method for exhaustive testing. Side-channel analysis examines unintended information leakage but does not comprehensively assess runtime vulnerabilities.
Fuzz testing is a specific technique within dynamic analysis but does not ensure exhaustive coverage. Static analysis examines code without execution, missing runtime-specific vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 271
A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) reviewed data from a cyber exercise that examined all aspects of the company's response plan. Which of the following best describes what the CISO reviewed?
- A. A tabletop exercise
- B. A system security plan
- C. A disaster recovery plan
- D. An after-action report
Answer: D
Explanation:
An after-action report is a document that summarizes the performance of a team during a cybersecurity incident. It is used to review all aspects of the incident response plan, including what was done correctly, what needs improvement, and how the team responded to the incident.
The CISO's review of data from a cyber exercise would typically result in an after-action report, which helps in improving future responses to incidents.
NEW QUESTION # 272
A company is looking to fortify its cybersecurity defenses and is focusing on its network infrastructure. The solution cannot affect the availability of the company's services to ensure false positives do not drop legitimate traffic.
Which of the following would satisfy the requirement?
- A. NIDS
- B. NIPS
- C. Reverse proxy
- D. WAF
Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference: https://subscription.packtpub.com/book/networking-and-servers/9781782174905/5/ch05lvl1sec38
/differentiating-between-nids-and-nips
https://owasp.org/www-community/controls/Intrusion_Detection
A NIDS (Network Intrusion Detection System) is a security solution that monitors network traffic for signs of malicious activity, such as attacks, intrusions, or policy violations. A NIDS does not affect the availability of the company's services because it operates in passive mode, which means it does not block or modify traffic.
Instead, it alerts the network administrator or other security tools when it detects an anomaly or threat.
References: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-network-intrusion-detection-system.
html https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/network-intrusion-detection-system-nids/
NEW QUESTION # 273
Application owners are reporting performance issues with traffic using port 1433 from the cloud environment.
A security administrator has various pcap files to analyze the data between the related source and destination servers. Which of the following tools should be used to help troubleshoot the issue?
- A. Wireless vulnerability scan
- B. Password cracker
- C. Fuzz testing
- D. Protocol analyzer
- E. Exploit framework
Answer: D
Explanation:
A protocol analyzer, such as Wireshark, is a tool used to capture and analyze network traffic. It allows security administrators to inspect individual packets, understand the traffic flow, and identify any unusual patterns or issues that may be impacting performance, such as high latency or unusual volume of traffic on a specific port.
NEW QUESTION # 274
A security engineer is reviewing a record of events after a recent data breach incident that Involved the following:
- A hacker conducted reconnaissance and developed a footprint of the
company s Internet-facing web application assets.
- A vulnerability in a third-party horary was exploited by the hacker,
resulting in the compromise of a local account.
- The hacker took advantage of the account's excessive privileges to
access a data store and exfilltrate the data without detection.
Which of the following is the BEST solution to help prevent this type of attack from being successful in the future?
- A. User behavior analysis
- B. Software composition analysis
- C. Dynamic analysis
- D. Secure web gateway
- E. Web application firewall
Answer: E
Explanation:
Why do you need a web application firewall (WAF)?
Maximizes the detection and catch rate for known and unknown threats
Minimizes false alerts (false positives) and adapts to continually evolving web applications Ensures broader adoption through ease of use and minimal performance impact
NEW QUESTION # 275
A security analyst is investigating a series of suspicious emails by employees to the security team. The email appear to come from a current business partner and do not contain images or URLs. No images or URLs were stripped from the message by the security tools the company uses instead, the emails only include the following in plain text.
Which of the following should the security analyst perform?
- A. Block the IP address for the business partner at the perimeter firewall.
- B. Configure the email gateway to automatically quarantine all messages originating from the business partner.
- C. Contact the security department at the business partner and alert them to the email event.
- D. Pull the devices of the affected employees from the network in case they are infected with a zero-day virus.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best option for the security analyst to perform is to contact the security department at the business partner and alert them to the email event. The email appears to be a phishing attempt that tries to trick the employees into revealing their login credentials by impersonating a legitimate sender. The security department at the business partner should be notified so they can investigate the source and scope of the attack and take appropriate actions to protect their systems and users. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training
/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://us-cert.cisa.gov/ncas/tips/ST04-014
NEW QUESTION # 276
A new requirement for legislators has forced a government security team to develop a validation process to verify the integrity of a downloaded file and the sender of the file. Which of the following is the BEST way for the security team to comply with this requirement?
- A. Digital signature
- B. Message hash
- C. Message digest
- D. Message authentication code
Answer: A
Explanation:
A digital signature is a cryptographic technique that allows the sender of a file to sign it with their private key and the receiver to verify it with the sender's public key. This ensures the integrity and authenticity of the file, as well as the non-repudiation of the sender.
NEW QUESTION # 277
An IPSec solution is being deployed. The configuration files for both the VPN concentrator and the AAA server are shown in the diagram.
Complete the configuration files to meet the following requirements:
* The EAP method must use mutual certificate-based authentication (With issued client certificates).
* The IKEv2 Cipher suite must be configured to the MOST secure
authenticated mode of operation,
* The secret must contain at least one uppercase character, one lowercase character, one numeric character, and one special character, and it must meet a minimum length requirement of eight characters, INSTRUCTIONS Click on the AAA server and VPN concentrator to complete the configuration.
Fill in the appropriate fields and make selections from the drop-down menus.
VPN Concentrator:
AAA Server:
Answer:
Explanation:
See the answer below in Explanation.
Explanation:
VPN Concentrator:
AAA Server:
NEW QUESTION # 278
......
Get Perfect Results with Premium CAS-004 Dumps Updated 620 Questions: https://torrentking.practicematerial.com/CAS-004-questions-answers.html
